ISTQB Foundation Level Certification

Welcome to ISTQB Foundation Level Blog

2009-07-18T01:29:00.004+05:30

You have come to the right place if you are aspiring to be an ISTQB Certified Foundation Level tester, and are looking for help (or guidance) for the same.

Through this site, I aim to provide you access to all the information required for being successful in this exam. Please browse through the archive viewer on the left hand side to find the topic you need help on, and make the most of the material available here.

Also, feel free to join the ISTQB Foundation Level Certification Yahoo! group by clicking on its icon on the left hand pane. This group is expected to serve as a hotbed of discussions amongst all CTFL aspirants.

I have also included a couple of mock Foundation Level exams and hope that they will be helpful to you in determining your level of preparedness for the exam at different times of your journey towards the actual certification.

I look forward to receiving your bouquets and brickbats, and hope to be successful in my mission of getting you ISTQB Foundation Level certified!

Mock Foundation Level Exam 6

2009-07-18T00:27:00.004+05:30

1. Which document contains a set of test cases?

a) Test Specification
b) Test Plan
c) Test Report
d) Testers CV

2. Where are the results of a testing phase stored?

a) Test Specification
b) Test Plan
c) Test Record
d) Test Case

3. What is used to check that sufficient testing has been performed?

a) Test Completion Criteria
b) Test Deletion Criteria
c) The Test Plan
d) The Test Specification

4. What is a successful Test?

a) A successful test is one that finds no bugs
b) A successful test is one that finds a fault
c) A successful test is one that creates no results
d) A successful test is one that finds a failure

5. A Developer’s perspective of a Tester is often?

a) Seen as an unnecessary part of the product development
b) Seen as constructive to the product development
c) Seen as destructive to the product development
d) Seen as a creative part of the product development

6. The purpose of a Developer is often?

a) Seen as an unnecessary part of the product development
b) Seen as constructive to the product development
c) Seen as a creative part of the product development
d) Seen as destructive to the product development

7. Which one of the following attributes is commonly associated with a Tester?

a) Seen as being creative
b) No industry standard qualifications
c) Poor communicators
d) Skills in a very specific area

8. Which one of the following attributes is commonly associated with a Tester?

a) Skills in a very specific area
b) Multi-talented
c) Highly valued within the company
d) Poor communicators

9. Which one of the following attributes is commonly associated with a Developer?

a) Very good communicators
b) Seen as being destructive
c) Rarely valued within a company
d) Highly valued within the company

10. Which one of the following attributes is commonly associated with a Developer?

a) Skills in a very specific area
b) Seen as being destructive
c) Rarely valued within a company
d) Multi-talented

11. Where can friction most commonly be found?

a) Between Testers
b) Between Testers and Developers
c) Between Testers and Customers
d) Between Testers and Salesmen

12. Which of the following has the highest independence?

a) Test cases are not chosen by a person
b) Test cases are designed by a person(s) from a different organization
c) Test cases are designed by another person(s)
d) Test cases are designed by the person(s) writing the software

13. Which of the following has the highest independence?

a) Test cases are designed by the person(s) writing the software
b) Test cases are designed by a person(s) from a different section
c) Test cases are designed by another person(s)
d) Test cases are designed by a person(s) from a different organization

14. Which of the following has the lowest independence?

a) Test cases are designed by the person(s) writing the software
b) Test cases are designed by another person(s)
c) Test cases are designed by a person(s) from a different section
d) Test cases are designed by the person(s) writing the software

15. Which of the following has the lowest independence?

a) Test cases are designed by another person(s)
b) Test cases are designed by a person(s) from a different section
c) Test cases are not chosen by a person
d) Test cases are designed by a person(s) from a different organization

16. “Whenever a fault is detected and fixed then the software should be ________ to ensure that the original fault has been successfully removed.”

a) Automated
b) Regression tested
c) Re-tested
d) Returned to the Developer

17. "__________ attempts to verify that modifications have not caused unintended adverse side effects in the unchanged software (regression faults) and that the modified system still meets its requirements."

a) Automated testing
b) Regression testing
c) Re-testing
d) Acceptance testing

18. Often, expected results are based on…..?

a) Based on an educated guess
b) Future results
c) What the Developer tells the Tester
d) Previous results

19. Where is a good place to look for information, when creating expected results for a new test case?

a) The product sales brochure
b) The Test Team Leader
c) Under the table
d) Design documentation

20. Which of the following is not a prioritisation criteria?

a) Probability of a failure
b) Testers requirement
c) Customer requirement
d) Cost of testing

21. Which of the following is not a prioritisation criteria?

a) Feature history
b) Severity of possible failure
c) Probability of a failure
d) Probability of success

22. What does SDLC represent?

a) Software Developing Life Cycle
b) Systems Development Life Cycle
c) Systems Developing Life Cycle
d) Software Development Life Cycle

23. Which of the following is a valid model for SDLC?

a) V & C
b) RAD
c) ATSL 160669
d) ROD

24. What does V & V represent?

a) Verifying & Verification
b) Validation & Verifying
c) Validity & Verification
d) Verification & Validation

25. What is termed “confirmation by examination and provision of objective evidence that specified requirements have been fulfilled”?

a) Regression
b) Validation
c) Verification
d) Reviewing

26. What is termed “confirmation by examination and provision of objective evidence that the particular requirements for a specific intended use have been fulfilled”?

a) Reviewing
b) Verification
c) Regression
d) Validation

27. In simple terms “________: Are we building the product right?”

a) Reviewing
b) Verification
c) Validation
d) Regression

28. In simple terms “________: Are we building the right product?”

a) Validation
b) Regression
c) Verification
d) Reviewing

29. Which model is also known as the Sequential Model?

a) V-model
b) Waterfall Model
c) Spiral Model
d) RAD

30. Which model commonly results in Test creation & planning not being considered until the code has been written?

a) RAD
b) The Spiral Model
c) The Waterfall Model
d) The V-model

31. Which model clearly displays the relationship between Developing and Testing?

a) Waterfall model
b) V-model
c) RAD
d) Spiral model

32. Which model has an incremental approach to both Developing and Testing?

a) V-model
b) RAD
c) Waterfall model
d) Spiral model

33. Which is the suggested model to use when not all of the requirements are known to the users?

a) Waterfall model
b) V-model
c) Spiral model
d) RAD

34. What does ‘RAD’ represent?

a) Rapid Application Development
b) Rapid Application Deployment
c) Rapid Application Deploying
d) Rapid Application Developing

35. What does ‘DDSM’ represent?

a) Dynamic Systems Developers Methodology
b) Dynamic Systems Database Methodology
c) Dynamic Software Development Methodology
d) Dynamic Systems Development Methodology

36. What is designed to organise and control RAD developments?

a) SMDD
b) MSDD
c) DSDM
d) DDSM

37. Which model has little or no formal documentation?

a) RAD
b) V-model
c) Waterfall
d) Spiral

38. “The earlier on in the development lifecycle the fault is found, the ______ it is to rectify”

a) Cheaper
b) More Expensive
c) Easier
d) More difficult

39. Which of the following is worse?

a) A fault found by a Tester
b) A fault found during a beta test
c) A fault found just before the products release
d) A fault found by a customer

40. The cost of a fault is dependant on ________ it is found?

a) How
b) Where
c) When
d) By whom

Answers:

1. b
2. b
3. a
4. b
5. c
6. c
7. b
8. b
9. d
10. a
11. b
12. a
13. d
14. a
15. a
16. c
17. b
18. d
19. d
20. b
21. d
22. b
23. b
24. d
25. b
26. d
27. b
28. a
29. b
30. c
31. b
32. d
33. c
34. a
35. d
36. d
37. a
38. a
39. a
40. c

Mock Foundation Level Exam 5

2009-07-17T23:49:00.004+05:30

1. Deciding how much testing is enough should take into account:

i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team

a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

2. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?

i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

a) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

3. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:

a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Implementation and execution
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Identify the invalid Equivalance class value.

a. CLASS
b. cLASS
c. CLass
d. CLa01ss

5. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000

6. Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are:

a) Designed by persons who write the software under test
b) Designed by a person from a different section
c) Designed by a person from a different organization
d) Designed by another person

7. We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing:

a) User Acceptance Test Cases
b) Integration Level Test Cases
c) Unit Level Test Cases
d) Program specifications

8. Validation involves which of the following:

i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false

9. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

a) Component testing
b) Non-functional system testing
c) User acceptance testing
d) Maintenance testing

10.

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room
B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room

a) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade
b) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold
c) A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver
d) A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade

11. Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:

a) Re Testing
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Negative Testing

12. Impact Analysis helps to decide :-

a) How much regression testing should be done
b) Exit Criteria
c) How many more test cases need to written
d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing

13. Functional system testing is:

a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times

14. Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.
Which of the following represents an invalid state transition?

a) OFF to ON
b) ON to OFF
c) FAULT to ON

15. Peer Reviews are also called as :-

a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review

16. Consider the following statements:

i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

17. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :-

a) Explaining the objective
b) Fixing defects found typically done by author
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations

18. Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:

i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests

a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

19. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?

a) Test Planning and Control
b) Test implementation and Execution
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting

20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

a) State transition testing
b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis

21. Success Factors for a review include :

i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
b) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
d) ii is correct

22. Defects discovered by static analysis tools include :

i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures

a) i, ii, iii, iv is correct
b) iii is correct, and i, ii, iv are incorrect
c) i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
d) iv, ii is correct

23. Test Conditions are derived from :-

a) Specifications
b) Test Cases
c) Test Data
d) Test Design

24. Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-

a) Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques
b) Equivalence partitioning , Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques
c) Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques
d) Equivalence Partioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques

25. Regression testing should be performed:

i. every week
ii. after the software has changed
iii. as often as possible
iv. when the environment has changed
v. when the project manager says

a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
b) ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false

26. Benefits of Independent Testing:

a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
d) Independent Testers can test better than developers

27. Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage:

Read P
Read Q
If p+q > 100 then
Print “Large”
End if
If p > 50 then
Print “pLarge”
End if

a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
b) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

28. Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :-
Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if

a) Statement coverage is 4
b) Statement coverage is 1
c) Statement coverage is 3
d) Statement Coverage is 2

29. The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as:

a) Anomaly Report
b) Defect Report
c) Test Defect Report
d) Test Incident Report

30. Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader?

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how
iv. Create the Test Specifications

a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii, iii, iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

31. Features of White Box Testing Technique:

i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality

a) i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
b) iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
c) ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
d) iii and iv are true and i,ii are false

32. Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?

i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware
iv. Analyzing lessons

a) i, ii, iv are true and iii is false
b) i, ii, iii are true and iv is false
c) i, iii, iv are true and ii is false
d) All of above are true

33. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing?

a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works
b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free
c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do
d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects

34. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

a) Top down
b) Big-bang
c) Bottom up
d) Functional incrementation

35. Drivers are also known as:

i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffolding

a) i, ii are true and iii is false
b) i, iii are true and ii is false
c) ii, iii are true and i is false
d) All of the above are true

36. Exit Criteria may consist of :-

i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment

a) iv is correct and i, ii, iii are incorrect
b) i, ii, iii is correct and iv is incorrect
c) ii is correct and i, ii, iii are incorrect
d) iii and iv are correct and i, ii are incorrect

37. Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:-

i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers

a) iv is correct and i, ii, iii are incorrect
b) i, ii, iii are correct and iv is incorrect
c) i, ii are correct and iii, iv are incorrect
d) i, iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect

38. The selection of a test approach should consider the context:

i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team

a) i, ii, iii, iv are true
b) i, ii, iii are true and iv is false
c) ii, iii, iv are true and i is false
d) i, iv are true and ii, iii are false

39. In case of Large Systems:

a) Only few tests should be run
b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk
c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.

40. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as:

a) Configuration Control
b) Status Accounting
c) Configuration Identification
d) Configuration Identification

Answers:

1. c
2. a
3. a
4. d
5. d
6. c
7. a
8. b
9. d
10. d
11. c
12. a
13. c
14. c
15. c
16. d
17. a
18. d
19. c
20. b
21. a
22. a
23. a
24. c
25. c
26. b
27. c
28. b
29. a
30. a
31. a
32. c
33. d
34. b
35. c
36. b
37. b
38. b
39. b
40. a

Mock Foundation Level Exam 4

2009-07-17T13:15:00.044+05:30

1. Which of the following is a major task of test planning?

a) Determining the test approach
b) Preparing test specifications
c) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
d) Measuring and analyzing results

2. Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN true?

a) Source-code inspections are often used in component testing
b) Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately testable
c) Component testing is an important part of user acceptance testing
d) Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions between software and hardware components

3. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%. The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%. Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

a) £4000; £5000; £5500
b) £32001; £34000; £36500
c) £28000; £28001; £32001
d) £4000; £4200; £5600

4. Which of the following will NOT be detected by static analysis?

a) Parameter type mismatches
b) Errors in requirements
c) Undeclared variables
d) Uncalled functions

5. Which of the following test activities can be automated?

i Reviews and inspections
ii Metrics gathering
iii Test planning
iv Test execution
v Data generation

a) i, iii, iv
b) i, ii, iii
c) ii, iv, v
d) ii, iii, v

6. Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a testing tool?

a) Evaluate testers’ competence to use the tool
b) Complete the testing of a key project
c) Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost
d) Discover what the requirements for the tool are

7. What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?

a) To communicate how incidents will be managed
b) To communicate how testing will be performed
c) To produce a test schedule
d) To produce a work breakdown structure

8. In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to begin?

a) After the software or system has been produced
b) During development
c) As early as possible
d) During requirements analysis

9. What is the objective of debugging?

i To localise a defect
ii To fix a defect
iii To show value
iv To increase the range of testing

a) i, iii. B
b) ii, iii, iv
c) ii, iv
d) i, ii

10. Given the following decision table:

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

A.TC1: Fred is a 32 year old smoker resident in London
B.TC3: Jean-Michel is a 65 year non-smoker resident in Paris A

a) A – Insure, 10% discount, B – Insure, no discount
b) A – Don’t insure, B – Don’t insure
c) A – Insure, no discount, B – Don’t insure
d) A – Insure, no discount, B – Insure with 10% discount

11. Which of the following are valid objectives for testing?

i.To find defects
ii.To gain confidence in the level of quality
iii.To identify the cause of defects
iv.To prevent defects

a) i,ii, and iii
b) ii, iii and iv
c) i, ii and iv
d) i,iii and iv

12. The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities:

i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques
ii. Specify the order of test case execution
iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions
iv. Specify expected results

According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these activities?

a) iii, i, iv, ii
b) iii, iv, i, ii
c) iii, ii, i, iv
d) ii, iii, i, iv

13. What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?

a) To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes
b) To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested
c) To determine how much the planned changes will affect users
d) To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes

14. Which of the following requirements would be tested by a functional system test?

a)The system must be able to perform its functions for an average of 23 hours 50 mins per day
b) The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users
c) The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer
d) The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year

15. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%. The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%. Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

a) £28000
b) £33501
c) £32001
d) £1500

16. Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed?

a) Test plan
b) Test procedure specification
c) Test case specification
d) Test design specification

17. Given the following state transition diagram:

Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?

a) A, B, E, B, C, F, D
b) A, B, E, B, C, F, F
c) A, B, E, B, C, D
d) A, B, C, F, F, D

18. Given the following decision table:

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

A. Frequent flyer member, travelling in Business class
B. Non-member, travelling in Economy class

a) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade
b) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Business class
c) A – Offer upgrade to First, B – Don’t offer any upgrade
d) A – Offer upgrade to First, B – Offer upgrade to Business class

19. During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed?

a) Test implementation and execution
b) Evaluating test exit criteria
c) Test analysis and design
d) Test planning and control

20. What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?

a) Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives
b) Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system
c) Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages
d) Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues

21. Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition?

If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount. Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.

a) 17, 18, 19
b) 29, 30, 31
c) 18, 29, 30
d) 17, 29, 31

22. Considering the following pseudo-code, calculate the MINIMUM number of test cases for statement coverage, and the MINIMUM number of test cases for decision coverage respectively.

READ A
READ B
READ C
IF C>A THEN
IF C>B THEN
PRINT "C must be smaller than at least one number"
ELSE
PRINT "Proceed to next stage"
ENDIF
ELSE
PRINT "B can be smaller than C"
ENDIF

a) 3, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 2, 4
d) 3, 2

23. Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?

a) Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete
b) Testing is isolated from development
c) Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality
d) Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased

24. Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?

a) Dynamic Analysis tool
b) Test Execution tool
c) Static Analysis tool
d) Security tool

25. Given the following State Table:

Which of the following represents an INVALID state transition?

a) E from State S2
b) E from State S3
c) B from State S1
d) F from State S3

26. Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?

a) All document reviews involve the development team
b) Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities
c) Each test level has test objectives specific to that level
d) Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete

27 . Which activity in the fundamental test process includes evaluation of the testability of the requirements and system?

a) Test analysis and design
b) Test planning and control
c) Test closure
d) Test implementation and execution

28. The following statements are used to describe the basis for creating test cases using either black or white box techniques:

i information about how the software is constructed
ii models of the system, software or components
iii analysis of the test basis documentation
iv analysis of the internal structure of the components

Which combination of the statements describes the basis for black box techniques?

a) ii and ii
b) ii and iv
c) i and iv
d) i and iii

29. What is typically the MOST important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts?

a) Because testing everything is not feasible
b) Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to finding bugs
c) Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show value
d) Because software is inherently risky

30. Which of the following defines the scope of maintenance testing?

a) The coverage of the current regression pack

b) The size and risk of any change(s) to the system
c) The time since the last change was made to the system
d) Defects found at the last regression test run

31. Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?

a) An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software

b) An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote the software
c) An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software than the person who wrote it
d) An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software

32. For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management?

i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items;

a) i, iv, vi
b) ii, iii, v
c) i, iii, iv
d) iv, v, vi

33. Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?

a) Number of undetected defects
b) Total number of defects in the product
c) Number of test cases not yet executed
d) Effort required to fix all defects

34. Which of following statements is true? Select ALL correct options.

Regression testing should be performed:

i once a month
ii when a defect has been fixed
iii when the test environment has changed
iv when the software has changed

a) ii and iv
b) ii, iii and iv
c) i, ii and iii
d) i and iii

35. In which of the following orders would the phases of a formal review usually occur?

a) Planning, preparation, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up
b) Kick off, planning, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up
c) Preparation, planning, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up
d) Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up

36. Which of the following are valid objectives for incident reports?

i. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary
ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement
iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence
iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the quality of the system under test

a) i, ii, iii
b) i, ii, iv
c) i, iii, iv
d) ii, iii, iv

37. Consider the following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques?

i. Equivalence Partitioning
ii. Use Case Testing
iii.Data Flow Analysis
iv.Exploratory Testing
v. Decision Testing
vi Inspections

a) i-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic
b) iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic

c) ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic
d) vi is static, i-v are dynamic

38. Why are static testing and dynamic testing described as complementary?

a) Because they share the aim of identifying defects and find the same types of defect
b) Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find
c) Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect
d) Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of defect they find

39. Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual tester?

i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn’t play correctly

a) i, iii, iv, v

b) ii, iv and v
c) i, ii and iv
d) i and v

40. Which of the following is determined by the level of product risk identified?

a) Extent of testing
b) Scope for the use of test automation
c) Size of the test team
d) Requirement for regression testing

Answers:

1. a
2. b
3. d
4. b
5. c
6. c
7. b
8. a
9. d
10. c
11. c
12. a
13. d
14. c
15. b
16. b
17. a
18. c
19. b
20. b
21. c
22. a
23. d
24. b
25. b
26. c
27. a
28. a
29. a
30. b
31. d
32. a
33. c
34. b
35. d
36. b
37. b
38. d
39. a
40. a

Mock Foundation Level Exam 3

2009-07-17T12:59:00.002+05:30

1. What is failure?

a) Deviation from expected result to actual result
b) Defect in the software
c) Error in the program code
d) Fault in the system

2. People who don’t participate in technical reviews

a) Analysts
b) Management
c) Developers
d) Testers

3. What type of testing is done to supplement the rigorous testing?

a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) Error Guessing
d) System testing

4. Capture and replay facilities are least likely to be used to ….

a) Performance testing
b) Recovery testing
c) GUI testing
d) User requirements.

5. What is the smallest number of test cases required to Provide 100% branch coverage?

If(x>y)
x=x+1;
else y=y+1;
while(x>y) { y=x*y; x=x+1; }

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

6. Cyclomatic complexity is used to calculate:

a) number of independent paths in the basis set of a program
b) number of binary decisions + 1
c) upper bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all statements have been executed at least once
d) number of branches and decisions

7. If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass (61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class?

a) 23, 24, 25
b) 0, 12, 25
c) 30, 36, 39
d) 32,37,40

8. Match the following:

1. Test estimation
2. Test control
3. Test monitoring

A. measures of tracking process
B. effort required to perform activities
C. reallocation of resources

a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C

9. One of the following is not a part of white box testing as per BS7925-II standards.

a) Random testing
b) Data Flow testing
c) Statement testing
d) Syntax testing

10. Exclusive use of white box testing in a test-phase will:

a) Ensure the test item is adequately tested
b) Make the need for black-box testing redundant
c) Run the risk that the requirements are not satisfied
d) Suffices for the unit testing phase

11. Match the following.

1. Configuration identification
2. Configuration control
3. Status reporting
4. Configuration auditing

A. Maintains of CI’s in a library
B. Checks on the contents of the library
C. Function recording and tracking problems.
D. Requires the all CI’s and their versions in the system are known

a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
b) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D

12. Cost of the reviews will not include.

a) Review process itself
b) Metrics analysis
c) Tool support
d) Process improvement

13. What type of testing will you perform on internet banking solution?

a) System integration
b) Functional testing
c) Non-functional testing.
d) Requirements testing

14. Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and unassigned pointers?

a) Dynamic analysis tool
b) Static Analysis tool
c) Maintenance tool
d) Configuration tool

15. Which of the following is not included in Test Plan?

a) Features to be tested
b) Environmental needs
c) Suspension criteria
d) Expected results

16. A piece of software has been given….what tests in the following will you perform?

1) Test the areas most critical to business processes
2) Test the areas where faults will be maximum
3) Test the easiest functionalities

a) 1&2 are true and 3 is false
b) 1, 2 & 3 are true
c) 1 is true, 2&3 are false
d) 1&2 are false, 3 is true

17. Amount of testing performed will not depend on

a) Risks involved
b) Contractual requirements
c) Legal requirements
d) Test data.

18. Which of the following provides the biggest potential cost saving from use of CAST?

a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test planning
d) Test execution

19. Testing is not done to ….

a) Find faults
b) Improve quality
c) Check user friendliness.
d) Improve software accuracy

20. Software quality is not relevant to …

a) Correctness
b) Usability
c) Viability
d) Reusability

21. Which of the following are false?

a) Incidents should always be investigated and resolved
b) Incidents occur when expected and actual results differ
c) Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process improvement
d) An incident can be raised against documentation

22. Which of the following is a type of non-functional testing?

a) Usability testing
b) Statement Coverage
c) Dataflow testing
d) Cause-effect graphing

23. To make a test effective it is most important that:

a) It is easy to execute
b) It is designed to detect faults if present
c) The expected outcome is specified before execution
d) It is unlikely to delay progress

24. Error guessing is:

a) An appropriate way of deriving system tests
b) Only used if good requirements are not available
c) Only used when good requirements are available
d) The most appropriate way of deriving system tests

25. A standard for software testing terminology is:

a) IEEE 802.11
b) ISO 9001
c) BS 7925-1
d) BS 7925-2

26. Which of the following is true of V-model?

a) It includes the verification of designs
b) It states that modules are tested against user requirements
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used
d) It only models the testing phase

27. Which of the following is NOT part of a high level test plan?

a) Functions not to be tested
b) Environmental requirements
c) Analysis of Specifications
d) Entry and Exit criteria

28. When do you stop testing?

a) When the specified number of faults are found
b) When the test completion criteria are met
c) When all high and medium priority tests are complete
d) When all statements have been executed

29. Which of the following is least important in test management?

a) Estimating test duration
b) Incident Management
c) Configuration Management
d) De-bugging

30. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?

a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) Both a & b

31. Which of the following statements is true of static analysis?

a) Compiling code is not a form of static analysis
b) Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed
c) Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with dynamic testing
d) Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed

32. Regression testing always involves

a) Testing whether a known software fault been fixed
b) Executing a large number of different tests
c) Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse side effects
d) Using a test automation tool

33. A field failure occurs when multiple users access a system. Which of the following is true?

a) This is an acceptable risk of a multi-user system
b) Insufficient functional testing has been performed
c) This indicates an important non-functional requirement was not specified and tested
d) It is not possible to test against such events prior to release

34. Integration testing in the large involves:

a) Testing the system when combined with other systems
b) Testing a sub-system using stubs and drivers
c) Testing a system with a large number of users
d) Combing software components and testing them in one go

35. Data flow analysis studies:

a) How rapidly data is transferred through a program
b) The rate of change of data values as a program executes
c) The use of data on paths through the code
d) The intrinsic complexity of the code

36. The oracle assumption is that:

a) There is some existing system against which test output may be checked
b) The tester knows everything about the software under test
c) The tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test
d) Tools are used to check the results of testing

The following text will be used in Q.37 and Q.38.

In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22%. Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

37. To the nearest $ which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

a) $1500
b) $32001
c) $28000
d) $33501

38. Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

a) $5800; $28000; $32000
b) $0; $200; $4200
c) $5200; $5500; $28000
d) $28001; $32000; $35000

39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of User Acceptance Testing?

a) Use of automated test execution tools
b) Testing performed by users
c) Testing against acceptance test criteria
d) Integration of system with user documentation

40. For software to be reliable it must:

a) Be easy to maintain
b) Be unlikely to cause a failure
c) Never fail under any circumstances
d) Be written according to coding standards

Answers:

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. b
6. b
7. d
8. a
9. d
10. c
11. b
12. c
13. c
14. a
15. d
16. a
17. d
18. d
19. d
20. c
21. c
22. a
23. c
24. d
25. c
26. b
27. c
28. b
29. d
30. a
31. a
32. c
33. c
34. a
35. b
36. c
37. d
38. a
39. a
40. b

Mock Foundation Level Exam 2

2009-07-16T20:52:00.005+05:30

1. When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:

a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake

2. Regression testing should be performed:

v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true

3. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:

a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification

4. Testing should be stopped when:

a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

5. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:

a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 9999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

6. Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

7. Non-functional system testing includes:

a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist

8. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:

a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access

9. Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?

a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

10. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing

11. Consider the following statements

i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

12. Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:

Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

13. Given the following:

Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

14. Given the following code, which is true:

IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

15. Consider the following:

Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword

a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

16. The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:

a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet

17. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

18. What can static analysis NOT find?

a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations

19. Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:

a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis

20. Beta testing is:

a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

21. Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:

i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation

a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi

22. The main focus of acceptance testing is:

a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team

23. Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:

a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

24. Which of the following statements is NOT true:

a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents

25. A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:

a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file

26. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is

a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

27. Expected results are:

a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code

28. Test managers should not:

a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

29. Unreachable code would best be found using:

a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool

30. A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:

a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool

31. What information need not be included in a test incident report:

a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes

32. Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:

1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria

s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough

a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

33. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:

a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing

34. What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:

a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

35. The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:

a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729

36. The cost of fixing a fault:

a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined

37. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:

a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines

38. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:

a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

39. Which of the following is not part of performance testing:

a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions

40. Error guessing is best used

a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users

Answers:

1. c
2. c
3. e
4. e
5. c
6. a
7. b
8. b
9. c
10. e
11. b
12. b
13. b
14. b
15. e
16. c
17. b
18. c
19. c
20. a
21. b
22. d
23. a
24. d
25. a
26. a
27. d
28. c
29. a
30. e
31. e
32. b
33. e
34. a
35. b
36. b
37. d
38. d
39. c
40. b

Mock Foundation Level Exam 1

2009-07-16T20:09:00.006+05:30

1. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.

2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?

a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing

3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

4. Which of the following requirements is testable?

a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.

5. Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:

Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF

Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

6. Error guessing:

a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.

7. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?

a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

8. In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:

a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.

9. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?

v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control

1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results

a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

10. Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?

a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.

11. Which of the following is false?

a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.

12. Enough testing has been performed when:

a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.

13. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

14. Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?

a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage

15. Which of the following is false?

a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.

16. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?

a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.

17. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?

a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b

18. Which of the following is true of the V-model?

a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.

19. The oracle assumption:

a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

20. Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?

a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

21. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.

22. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing

23. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?

a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule

24. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?

a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning

25. Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?

a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing

26. Data flow analysis studies:

a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.

27. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000

28. An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.

29. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?

a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification

30. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?

a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

31. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?

a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

32. Integration testing in the small:

a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.

33. Static analysis is best described as:

a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.

34. Alpha testing is:

a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

35. A failure is:

a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.

36. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000

37. The most important thing about early test design is that it:

a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.

38. Which of the following statements about reviews is true?

a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

39. Test cases are designed during:

a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.

40. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.

Answers:

1. a
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. a
6. a
7. c
8. b
9. c
10. d
11. a
12. b
13. a
14. c
15. b
16. b
17. d
18. d
19. b
20. a
21. d
22. a
23. b
24. c
25. d
26. c
27. c
28. a
29. c
30. d
31. c
32. b
33. c
34. c
35. b
36. d
37. c
38. d
39. d
40. b

Tips for Foundation Level Exam

2009-07-03T08:12:00.004+05:30

Here are a few tips for answering questions correctly in the ISTQB Foundation Level certification exam:

(1) The questions in the exam often contain keywords like BEST, FIRST, MOST etc. More than one answer options might be correct but we need to select the best answer, in accordance with the keyword specified in the question.

(2) Some questions may contain extraneous information. Often, all the information presented in a question may not be needed to select the bext answer. You should learn to ignore such extraneous information and not let it confuse you.

(3) If you are not able to determine the correct answer for a particular question, follow the process of elimination. Eliminate as many answer options as possible, and then make a better guess at the correct answer.

(4) Most of the questions are very easy and need nothing more than a thorough study of the syllabus.

(5) Sometimes, closely matching but confusing options may be provided for a question. In order to avoid getting confused, first study and understand the question, and then work out the correct response (before going through the answer options). Once you have thought of the best solution, look at the available answers and choose the one, which is the closest to your answer.

Hope these tips help you in choosing the correct answers to the questions in the exam!

ISTQB Foundation Level Exam - Basic Information

2009-07-02T22:59:00.005+05:30

Today, I shall be talking about the basic information for ISTQB Foundation Level exam. Again, this information is for the exam conducted by Indian Testing Board. It might be different for exams conducted by other national testing boards. Please refer to the websites of your respective national testing boards for details.

Target Audience: ISTQB Foundation Level exam aims to evaluate the understanding of basic software testing concepts gained by an individual. It helps everyone use a common terminology for discussing software testing issues and is useful for all team members of a software project. It is equally useful for developers, testers, project leads as well as project managers.

Examination Format: In India, the Foundation Level exam consists of 40 multiple-choice questions. Each question is worth 1 point and you need to answer at least 26 questions correctly in order to successfully clear the exam. This is a closed book exam, meaning you are not allowed to take along with you any books or other study material with you in the examination hall. Also, the candidates need to physically visit the examination center in order to appear in the exam. The exam is not administered online presently. A total of 75 minutes are available to answer all the questions. However, one good news is that there is no negative marking. So, make sure that you do not leave any question unanswered, even if you are not sure of the correct answer.

Examination Fees: The examination fees for general candidates is Rs 4000/-. However, for candidates from accredited training institutes or employees of affiliated companies, the fees is Rs 3500/- (please look at my previous post for details). Once deposited, the fees is non-refundable. However, you can request for a change in the examination date or venue at least one month prior to the scheduled examination date.

Re-examination Fees: You need to pay Rs 2500/- for re-appearing in the FL exam, if you are not able to clear it in the first attempt.

Results: Examination results are usually available within 2 weeks. All candidates, who clear the exam successfully, should receive their certificates within 8 weeks.

Validity: ISTQB Foundation Level certification is valid for life.

Difficulty Level: Based on my experience as well as that of my friends, I can say that the exam is not really tough. Even though you might be coming across a number of posts in which aspirants are looking for study material and books for the Foundation Level exam, I sincerely believe that a thorough study of the syllabus and glossary of terms available at the Indian Testing Board website is enough to help you successfully attain this certification. However, experience always helps. Even though no experience is officially required to be eligible for sitting in the Foundation Level exam, I would recommend that you work for at least 6 months in a software testing role before appearing in this exam. This way, you will be able to relate the concepts that you study, with your experiences in real life as well as increase your chances of success in the exam.

Registration for ISTQB Foundation Level exam

2009-07-02T22:38:00.006+05:30

The process for registration for ISTQB Foundation Level certification exam is described on the 'Registration' tab of the FAQ page on Indian Testing Board's website (http://india.istqb.org/faq.htm).

Primarily, the process is as follows:

(1) You need to fill in and submit the online enrollment form available at: http://india.istqb.org/enrollment_form.php.

(2) You will receive a confirmation e-mail containing further instructions.

(3) As per instructions, you need to send a DD for specified amount in favour of INDIAN TESTING BOARD, payable at 'NOIDA', to the Noida or Bangalore Office of Indian Testing Board. The addresses of these offices are available at: http://india.istqb.org/contact.htm.

(4) You will be informed of the timing and procedure of the examination. Keep this information handy for quick reference.

Note: The amount of fees to be paid for Foundation Level exam is Rs 4000/- for general candidates. However, 2 types of discounts are available: The first type of discount is given to candidates who have attended training from an accredited training provider. This discount is given when the training provider forwards the names of the candidates. These candidates pay Rs. 3500/- instead of Rs. 4000/-. The second type of discount is available to the companies that tie up with ITB to get their testing staff certified. Candidates from these companies also pay Rs. 3500/- instead of Rs. 4000/-. A list of these companies is available at: http://india.istqb.org/affiliates.htm.

Once the registration process is complete, you need to appear in the exam on the date and time provided to you. Make sure that you carry along your photo identity card, when you appear for the exam.In case of any queries while registering for the exam, you may fill in and submit the online enquiry form available at: http://india.istqb.org/enquiry.php.

Introduction to ISTQB Certification

2009-06-28T23:26:00.005+05:30

ISTQB (International Software Testing Qualifications Board), responsible for conducting the ISTQB certification exam, was officially founded in Edinburgh in November 2002 and is represented by various national testing boards in different member countries. Presently (as of June 2009), 42 national testing boards are members of ISTQB and there are more than 100,000 ISTQB certified professionals worldwide. The national testing boards are responsible for conducting the certification exam in their respective countries. Indian Testing Board (ITB) is the ISTQB approved national board for India.

ISTQB certification consists of 2 levels of certification, with the 3rd level currently under planning. The 2 levels of examination currently operational are the (a) Foundation Level, and, (b) Advanced Level. The syllabi for exams at these levels are available at the websites of ISTQB (http://www.istqb.org/download.htm) as well as Indian Testing Board (http://india.istqb.org/syllabi.htm). Besides, the standard glossary of terms used in software testing available at both these sites also forms an important component of the material to be understood in order to prepare effectively for these exams.

While the Foundation Level certification requires the aspirants to successfully qualify in a single exam, the Advanced Level certification consists of 3 exams. These are (a) Test Analyst, (b) Technical Test Analyst, and (c) Test Manager. Successfully qualifying in either of these 3 exams makes the candidate eligible for a certificate for the corresponding specialization. However, qualifying in all the 3 exams at the Advanced Level makes the candidate eligible for an additional certificate (the ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level certificate). Also, successfully qualifying in the FL exam makes a candidate eligible to use the CTFL (Certified Tester Foundation Level) suffix with his/her name while qualifying at the Advanced Level makes one eligible for using the CTAL (Certified Tester Advanced Level) suffix with his/her name. Besides, successful candidates can download and use corresponding logos.

The final level of certification still under planning is the Expert Level certification. Details about this level are likely to be made known in 2009.

Why is software testing required?

2009-06-28T23:13:00.002+05:30

Let us understand as to why software testing is required. Why can we just not avoid it? Would it not be nice if we did not have to test any software at all? Well, let us see!

Firstly, the software development team is also composed of human beings and 'To err ishuman', thus any software product, irrespective of the competence level of the team developing it, can not be assumed to be free of defects. In order to remove those defects, we first need to identify them, right? That is exactly why testing is required. If we miss out on defects in any product (Always remember that testing can never ensure the absence of defects), what would happen? Would it have really serious consequences? Let us see!

Have you even seen anyone undergoing treatment for cancer? What happens there? A controlled amount of radiation is focused on the cancerous tissue in order to burn out the malignant cells. Right? What would happen if the amount of radiation is too huge? Healthy tissues in the body of the patient might get destroyed as well. On the other hand, what would happen if the amount of radiation is too less? The malignant cells might not get destroyed fully, thus not fully curing the patient of the disease.

Let us consider another example. Have you ever traveled by air? How does the pilot charter the aircraft through dense clouds and high mountains? He is guided in these activities by the instrument panel in front of him. Further, these instruments are controlled by complex software embedded in them. So, we know that there are a variety of applications, which are controlled through software, and whose improper functioning can lead to huge losses of life/property. It is precisely to prevent losses like these that it is mandatory to test software.

Let us consider another example. How about a banking product? Let us suppose that a bank is supposed to pay interest @ 5% per annum to all its customers, who have opened savings accounts with it. Now, what would happen if this software was not tested and the interest rate was inadvertently specified to be 50% per annum? Individual account holders might make a fortune for a while but the bank will soon go bankrupt. Now, consider the reverse case. What would happen if the interest rate got stored as 0.5% per annum? In this case, individual customers will lose initially and the bank might not even know about this bug till someone points it out.

On the basis of all these examples, we can easily understand the significance of software testing. In fact, the importance of software testing can not be overemphasized.

That's it for the day, friends! Do let me have your feedback!

Introduction to Testing

2009-06-28T22:48:00.001+05:30

Let us get introduced to testing and understand the significance of this activity.Please feel free to post your questions. Also, I shall be eager to receive your bouquets/brickbats. So, let's go ....

Let us start with an understanding of the term 'Testing'. What does testing really mean? What do we mean when we say that we need to test something? How does a person test something or someone? The first thing that comes to my mind when I think of testing is the numerous tests / exams that I have appeared in throughout my school and college years. Are those tests related in any manner to the 'Testing' that we are talking about? Think over it! My answer is a resounding 'Yes'. Those exams were meant to test our understanding of the material taught to us during the corresponding period and helped the examiner evaluate if we were fit to be promoted to the next grade.

Let us now think of something else. What process do you follow when you purchase a high-value item (say a laptop or a plasma TV)? And, what do you do when you purchase an everyday item (say, a pencil or a toothbrush)? You might be inclined to say that you do not follow any process in either case. But think over it again! When going in for purchase of a laptop, don't you first make sure that the item is in a perfect working condition? Don't you ask the shopkeeper to first verify proper functionality before packing it for you? This is an example of a UAT (User Acceptance Test). Even though the laptop (as well as all of its components) has been tested many times over in the labs where it was manufactured, we still make sure that the product works in front of our eyes before agreeing to purchase it. Now, think about the steps that you follow when you purchase a pencil. Do you really follow any steps in this case? I, for one, don't. As long as the shopkeeper provides me the pencil that I have asked for, I really do not care much. Why this difference in behavior? Simply because in this case, we do not consider testing the pencil (e.g., sharpening it and writing with it) worthwhile enough. We accept the risk that the pencil might turn out to be a defective piece and that we might have to forego the money spent on purchasing it. This behavior is an example of Risk Management.

So now we understand that testing is as much a part of our everyday life as it is a specialized software engineering activity. The only difference between the two is that the testing conducted in everyday life is performed in an ad-hoc manner and usually does not get documented. On the other hand, testing of any software product is well-documented as well as planned for.